What did John mean by “1,000 years” in Revelation 20:1-7?
John meant 1,000 years.
But how do we know John didn’t just mean “a lot of years, innumerable”?
Because when John wants to communicate an indeterminant amount of time, he does not use exact figures.
How does John communicate an unspecified number?
Well, just examine the very next verse, Revelation 20:8, as an example:
“and will go out to deceive the nations at the four corners of the earth, Gog and Magog, to gather them for battle. Their number is like the sand of the sea.”
Do you see that phrase, “the sand of the sea”? This literary device is called a simile. It’s also used by Moses when he records God’s Word’s to Abraham in Genesis 22:17. Similes are used throughout the Bible, especially when a biblical author wants to use hyperbole.
But I thought you used a literal method of interpretation?
The literal, historical-grammatical method of interpretation accounts for different genres, grammar, metaphors, simile, imagery, hyperbole, context, backgrounds, idioms etc. The method is often falsely portrayed as being too rigid or “wooden literalism.” But these criticisms are unwarranted and typically lobbed by opponents.
So, if the Holy Spirit, through John, wanted to communicate “a really long time”, there are known, obvious ways to do so?
Exactly. John mentioned a lot of numbers in the Book of Revelation that are not interpreted to be unknown quantities: 7 churches, 7 bowls, 7 seals, 24 elders 12 tribes, 12 foundations, 12 gates, etc. If someone interpreted each of those numbers with a mystical approach, they could make the book say anything they wanted. In reality, just as each of these quantities mean what they say, so does 1,000 years.
In addition, John sees “a vast multitude” in Heaven. He did not try to communicate “a lot”, or “an unknowable quantity”, by using the exact figure “1,000.” It would have been a perfect time for John to do so if he wanted readers to understand that his use of 1,000 did not mean 1,000. But alas, there are no examples of John using 1,000 to communicate a really long time.
This bears repeating: there are no examples of John using 1,000 to communicate a really long time.
What if John wanted to communicate that something was for a short time?
Let’s examine 20:3, where John does just that:
“He threw him into the abyss, closed it, and put a seal on it so that he would no longer deceive the nations until the 1,000 years were completed. After that, he must be released for a short time.”
Do you see that? John uses both a specific number to refer to Satan’s imprisonment (1000 years), but then he uses a phrase (a short time) to refer to the amount of time Satan will be released. The Holy Spirit, and John, are not trying to confuse us.
So, why do people say that 1,000 years is just a really long time when it’s clear that John purposely used a definite amount of time and if John wanted to communicate a really long time he had clear ways of doing so?
I’m sure the reasons vary, ranging from tradition to misunderstandings. But a lot of it has to do with Israel.
What? What does Israel have to do with it?
If one begins with the premise that God is done with Israel’s distinct program and promises as a people or nation, then they cannot allow for a literal 1,000 kingdom where promises to the Jewish people are plainly realized in a literal Kingdom on earth.
That seems biased against the Jewish people/Israel!
Because it is.
How did we get here!?
That’s a lesson for another time.